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أسئلة امتحان البورد الأمريكي NBDE Part 2 2002/2003 Exam

الصورة الرمزية د. حسين رومي
د. حسين رومي
مشرف ملتقى طب الاسنان
تاريخ الإنضمام: 042007
رقم العضوية : 655
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المشاركات: 9,930
قديم 25-02-2009, 06:19
المشاركة 1
نشاط د. حسين رومي
  • قوة السمعة : 1046
    Sm136 أسئلة امتحان البورد الأمريكي NBDE Part 2 2002/2003 Exam
    أسئلة, الأمريكي, امتحان, البورد, exam, nbde, part

    Group I

    1.The action of the Hawley appliance is mainly
    a) intrusion
    b) tipping
    c) bodily movement

    2. A light force applied to the periodontal ligament during orthodontic treatment is considered
    a. intermittent
    b. direct
    c. continous
    d. indirect

    3. The fluoride concentration in most dentifrices range from
    a. 1-5ppm
    b. 900-1500ppm
    c. 450-700ppm
    d. 4000-6000ppm

    4. Why is the surgical stent required for an immediate denture?
    a. to give an idea of the anatomy of the region
    b. prevent hematoma
    c. to determine occlusion

    5. Which tooth will the matrix band be a problem with when placing a two surface amalgam?
    a. mesial on maxillary first molar
    b. distal on maxillary first premolar
    c. mesial on maxillary second premilar
    d. distal on mandibular first molar

    6. When do you do serial extraction?
    a. for space deficiency in mandibular anterior region
    b. for space deficieny in mandibular posterior region
    c. for space deficiency in maxillary anterior region
    d. for space deficiency in maxillary posterior region

    7. On what surface of the tooth is there deposition of F
    a. smooth surface
    b. pits
    c. fissures

    8. Organism implicated on causing severe spreading abscesses include
    a. Fusobacterium
    b. Campylobacter
    c. Enterococci
    d. Bacteroides

    9. A periodontal exam of a patient referred for endodontic treatment
    a. there is an inward flow of fluid
    b. there is an outward flow of fluid
    c. there is no fluid

    10. You fit a new completed denture and the patient complains of cheek biting, what would you do
    a. grind buccal of lower teeth
    b. gring buccal of upper teeth
    c. grind lingula of lower teeth
    d. grind lingula of upper teeth

    11. When doing an endo treatment you hit a ledge, what are you going to do?
    a. use smaller instrument and get beyond the ledge
    b. fill as far as you have reamed
    c. use a small round bur and remove the ledge
    d. continue working gently to eliminate the ledge

    12. A patient with new denture can not make the "S" and "TH" sound, what is the problem?
    a. extensive vertical overlap
    b. incisors placed too far
    c. incisors placed too far lingually

    13. What composite should ideally be used for a class 5
    a. microfil because it is pollished better
    b. microfil because it is stronger
    c. hybrid because it is polished better
    d. hybrid because it is stronger

    14. What would you warn patient about who is taking birth control pills and required Penicillian
    a. penicillin decrease effectivenes of birth control pill
    b. birth control pill decrease effectiveness of penicillian
    c. they may develop allergy

    15. What radiograph would you prescribe for a young patient who has no caries and where the molar teeth are contacting each other?
    a. BW and occlusal
    b. FMS
    c. pan
    d. pan and ceph

    16. How far should implants be placed from one another
    a. 3mm
    b. 4mm
    c. 5mm
    d. 7mm

    17. In what part of the mouth are ****stases seen most frequently
    a. mandible
    b. lateral border of tongue
    c. palate
    d. floor of the mouth

    18. What is the complication of up righting molar
    a. move distally and extrudes
    b. a class 3 molar relationship can develop
    c. class 2 molar relationship can develop

    19. When will the BULL rule be utilized with the selective grinding
    a. working side
    b. balance side
    c. protrusive movement
    d. all of the above

    20. What can make porcelain crown lighter
    a. value
    b. chroma
    c. hue

    21. Which of the following are effects common to pentobarbital, diazepam and meperidine
    a. amnesia and skeletal muscle relaxation
    b. anticonvulsant and hypnotic
    c. analgesia and relief of anxiety

    22. Pan showing radiolucency going inferior over the body of mandible close to the angle. Informed the patient was involved in an accident. Identify the radiolucency
    a. pharyngeal airspace
    b. fracture
    c. artifact-retake radiograph

    23. After opening the flap buccally in the maxillary premolar area, how will you suture it
    a. interrupted
    b. intermittent
    c. matttress

    24.Fracture of a rest of a chromium cobalt denture is due to
    a. over-finish and polish
    b. inadequate occlusal preparation

    25. In office bleaching changes the shade through all except
    a. dehydration
    b. etching tooth
    c. oxidation of colorant
    d. surface demineralization

    26. The lingual root of maxillary first molar radiographically appears mesial to the mesiobuccal root because the cone was directed from
    a. mesial
    b. distal
    c. superior
    d. inferior

    27. You fit new completed denture and the patient complains of cheek bite, what will you do?
    a. grinding buccal of lower teeth
    b. grinding buccal of upper teeth
    c. grinding lingual of lower teeth
    d. grindinging lingual of upper teeth

    28. Probing depth differs depending on
    a. inflammation of the tissue
    b. force used for probing
    c. if probing depth decrease, it may be due to reduction of inflammation and swelling, not due to real regain of attachment

    29. If during the root canal treatment, the dentist breaks the apical seating and extrude the file over the foramen
    a. fill the canal with a master file of a larger number then master cone
    b. increase the size of the file and re-create a new apical seal and then fill with the master cone of that size
    c. try to fill in as many Gutta percha points as possible
    d. use canal medication instead of filling

    30. If removal of torus must be performed to a patient with full-mouth dentition, where shouldthe incision be made?
    a. right on the top of the torus
    b. at the base of the torus
    c. midline of the torus
    d. from the gingival sulcus of the adjacent teeth

    31. After implant placement, an edentulous patient should
    a. avoid wearing anything for 2 weeks
    b. immediately have healing abutments placed over the implants
    c. should wear an immediate denture to protect the implant sites

    32. After perio surgery, the re-attachment can happen
    a. as soon as in a week
    b. to the dentin or cementum

    33. There are more detached plaques within supragingival plaques that subgingival plaques. The detached plaques within subgingival area are the ones that are more toxic to tissue than attached plaques
    a. both statements are correct
    b. the first statement is correct but not the second
    c. the first statement is wrong, but the second statement os correct
    d. both statement are wrong

    34. TMD patients usually have
    a. psychosis
    b. antisocial tendecy
    c. Schizotypical character
    d. drug abuse

    35. Why is z-plasty preferred over diamond technique for frenum detachment
    a. less scar contraction
    b. easier in terms of technique
    c. less incision needed, no suture needed

    36. What is the purpose of leveling the curve of Spee
    a. correct open bite
    b. correct deep bite
    c. correct angulation of the teeth
    d. change arch diameter

    37. Palatal expansion device does not need a labial bow because
    a. labial bow is not rigid enough
    b. labial bow would limit the expansion effect
    c. labial bow is not functional in this case

    38. What happens with intercanine distance after mixed dentition
    a. increased
    b. decreased
    c. stable, no change

    39. Upper limb IV injection, the most likely problem is
    a. Phlebitis
    b. intra-arterial injection
    c. vascularbreakage

    40. Which of the following materials is very hard to remove from patient's mouth
    a. alginate
    b. polyether
    c. polysulfide
    d. silicone

    41. The best and the most effective way to remove stained mottled enamel
    a. home bleaching
    b. microabrasion technique
    c. office bleaching
    d. walking bleaching

    42. The following have additive action for each component when used together, except for one, what is the exception
    a. Atropine+glycopyrolate (anticholinergic)
    b. aspirin acetaminophen
    c. penicillin tetracycline

    43. patients who have nausea and vomit during N2O sedation usually
    a. are allergic to N20
    b. inhale too high concentration of N20
    c. eat a big meal right before the proceudre

    44. Ataxic epilepsy patients - what are their most common dental problem
    a. adontia
    b. malocclusion
    c. trauma
    d. gingival hyperplasia due to medication

    45. Porcelain veneer - what is the most important advantage compared with porcelain venee, what is the most important advantage of resin veneer
    a. esthetic
    b. cost
    c. tooth preservation

    46. Compared with class II plaster, which one of the following is NOT the characteristics of die strength
    a. better compression strength
    b. better tensile strength
    c. require less water
    d. higher expansion

    47. Which of the followings is not an advantage of resin based GIC over water based GIC?
    a. better fluoride released
    b. better bonding
    c. better esthetic
    d. easier for manipulation

    48. What is the characteristic of an implant that would change bony resorption pattern
    a. intaosseous integration
    b. integrate with bone

    49. What are the reccommended numbers of implants for complete edentous patients
    a. maxilla 1 mandibular 1
    b. maxilla 3 mandibular 2
    c. maxilla 6 mandibular 4
    d. maxilla 8 mandibular 6

    50. Apically positioned flap is almost impossible to perform on
    a. maxillary buccal area
    b. maxillary lingual area
    c. mandibular lingual area
    d. mandibular buccal area

    51. In order to increase the success rate of treating local juvenile periodontitis, what should be done
    a. combine usage of systemic antibiotic
    b. local antibiotic treatment
    c. use of chlorhexidine

    52. Which feature provide the BOND onlay the most retention

    Group II

    1.Contaminate sharps must be handled in such ways except for
    a.The container must be labeled
    b.The container has a ****l case
    c.The container has to be non puncturable
    d.The container must be closable.

    2.Which of the condition would delays a dentist decisions of taking FMX
    a.Pregnancy
    b.Patient receiving radiothery next week
    c.Patient had CT last week
    d.Patient had FMX 6 months ago.

    3.Probing depth differs depending on
    a.Inflammation of the tissues.
    b.Force used for probing
    c.If probing depth decreases due to reduction of inflammation and swelling not due to real regain of attachment

    4.Tissue conditioner is used for treating
    a. Inflammatroy papillary hyperplasia
    b. Epulis fissuratum
    c.Traumatised mucosa
    d.Rocking denture stabilization

    5.If during recall patient who wear RPD the dentist finds that the indirect retainer and the rest would be lifted if he press on the edentulous area of the RPD, what should the dentist do
    a. tell the patient he needs new denture
    b. relining of the denture
    c.occlusal adjustment

    6.When should a posterior crossbite be corrected
    a.asap
    b. wait untill permanent dentition has fully developed
    c.during late mixed dentition
    d.during early mixed dentition

    7.Which of the following is not the effect of epinephrine
    a. Increase H.R
    b. Increase BP
    c.bronchoconstriction
    d.vasoconstriction

    8.What is the definition of total anterior facial height on Ceph
    a.nasion- menton
    b.A-B
    c. A-menton
    d. ANS- menton

    9.What happens if there is premature exfoliation of mandibular primary canine
    a.need space maintainer
    b.shift midline to affect side
    c.mandibular incisors move distally and lingually
    d.decrease in arch lenght

    10.What happens with intercanine distance after mixed dentition
    a. increase
    b.decreased
    c. no change

    11.Asprin stops pain by
    a. stopping the unpward transduction of pain signal in the spinal cord
    b.interfere with signal intrepretation in the CNS
    c. stopping the local signal production and transduction
    d.stopping the signal transduction in the cortex

    12.The following have additive action for eac component when used together excpet for one.what is the exception
    a. atropine -glycopyrolate anticholinergic
    b.penicilline- tetracycline
    c.asprin -acetaminophen

    13.In order to increase the success rate of treating local JP what should be done
    a. combine systemic antibiotic
    b.use chlorhexidine
    c.local antibiotic treatment

    14.Which feature provide the BOND onlay the most retention?

    15.The % of specific LA which is present in the base form when injected in the tissue whose pH is 7.4 inversely proportional to the pKa of that agent
    a.onset if faster, duration is longer
    b.onset is slower ,duration is lolnger
    c.duration same onset is slower
    d.onset and duration same

    16.which of the injections is most likely to have positive inspiration
    a. IA 10-15%
    b.akisino
    c.infraorbital
    d.gowgate 2%
    e.mental nerve

    17.what is the most definite way to distinguish amelloblastoma from OK
    a.smear cytology
    b.reactive light microscopy
    c.reflective microscopy

    18.dentist who uses 5- HEMA for clinical situations most likely exp which of the following conditions for the clinician
    a.contact dermatitis
    b.anaphylaxis
    c.artus reaction
    d.arthritis
    e.delayed hypersensitivity

    19.what was done wrong that the resin teeth wont stay in the resin denture base
    a. wax got in between during processing
    b.there is no loocking system
    c.retentive holes are not big enough

    20.which field of the following can be a speciality according to ADA
    a.public health
    b.geriatric dentistry
    c.hospital dentistry
    d.cosmetic dentistry

    21.which kind of patients cannot be treated with B blocker as antiarrithymic medication
    a. patients with angina
    b.patients with HTN
    c.patients with COPD
    d.patients with astham


    22.due to the mesial concavity of the max 1st PM prior to condensation of the amalgam the tooth is best prepared with
    a. wedge only
    b.matirx only
    c.no wedge or matrix
    d.custom made wedge and matrix

    23. radiographically you see widening of PDL around all teeth .what is your early diagnosis
    a.earlist sign of osteosarcoma
    b. sclreoderma
    c.hyperparathyroidism
    d.fibroius dysplasia
    قديم 18-05-2009, 11:16
    المشاركة 2
    الصورة الرمزية malak
    malak
    .:: عضو جديد ::.
    افتراضي
    thanks for this also
    because i need 2 prepare 4 the jordanian board soon
    thank u
    قديم 18-05-2009, 07:12
    المشاركة 2
    الصورة الرمزية د. حسين رومي
    د. حسين رومي
    مشرف ملتقى طب الاسنان
    افتراضي
    أهلا بالدكتورة ملاك

    نورتي الموضوع

    أتمنى لك التوفيق في امتحان البورد الأردني


    قديم 07-11-2010, 09:40
    المشاركة 2
    الصورة الرمزية khalid779
    khalid779
    .:: عضو جديد ::.
    افتراضي
    طيب وين الاجوبة على هالاسئلة
    قديم 08-11-2010, 01:11
    المشاركة 2
    الصورة الرمزية د. حسين رومي
    د. حسين رومي
    مشرف ملتقى طب الاسنان
    افتراضي
    اقتباس:
    المشاركة الأصلية كتبت بواسطة khalid779 مشاهدة المشاركة
    طيب وين الاجوبة على هالاسئلة
    أهلا بك أخي خالد،

    للأسف الأجوبة غير متوفرة

    يمكنك محاولة اجابتها مع زملائك


    وبالتوفيق


    قديم 25-11-2011, 03:06
    المشاركة 2
    الصورة الرمزية dr_Insaf
    dr_Insaf
    .:: عضو جديد ::.
    قديم 25-11-2011, 04:21
    المشاركة 2
    الصورة الرمزية د. حسين رومي
    د. حسين رومي
    مشرف ملتقى طب الاسنان
    افتراضي
    اقتباس:
    المشاركة الأصلية كتبت بواسطة dr_Insaf مشاهدة المشاركة
    Thanks alot
    Dr. Insaf You are welcome

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